<< previous (3:271) | next (3:273) >>

p372 * * * As regards Romans 6:2, the wished-for translation* is the result of a misconception of the whole passage. It makes it a motive drawn from a previous evil result and no more; whereas it is perfectly certain that the passage contemplates our dying in becoming Christians, not by our sins. Those who have been baptised unto Christ have been baptised unto His death. We have been made one plant with Him in the likeness of His death; and this is in order that we might walk in newness of life. Hence it is perfectly certain that the doctrine of the chapter is dying out of our old man, and living in newness of life - not our dying by our sin so as to be afraid of living in it now. And such is the whole tenor of the chapter; "our old man has been crucified with him;" and the use too of the dative at the close. How the writer can take νόμῳ in Galatians 2:19, as "by the law," is hard to conceive; because it is preceded by dia; νόμου, meaning "by the law," which makes it simply impossible. 2 Corinthians 13:4, is ἐκ δυνάμεως . I suppose he only quotes this for the sense.

{*'Dead by sin. If sin is such a dreadful thing as to have exposed us all to the punishment of death, from which Christ's death alone frees us, how can we think of continuing in it any longer?'}

Living in sin, and being dead in it, is not the same thing. One is the continuity of the old man in sin, the other is his state in respect of God; but both are true: "alienated from the life of God." A reference to Colossians shews, in the analogous passage, νεκροὺς ὄντας ἐν τοῖς παραπτώμασι καὶ τῆ ἀκροβυστία. Now ἐν can be used as an instrument or power too. But I think no intelligent Christian could doubt what it means here; and I do not see how it is possible with ἀκροβυστία to take it in any other sense than "in." Besides, νεκρούς would not be the word. It signifies properly "a corpse." It is not dying as a punishment for them, but a state in which they were. Then God creates again. They are viewed not as dying by or for their sins. It is not ἀπεθάνετε, but being νεκρούς He has quickened. The first work in the corpse is quickening with Christ, God's act. In Romans and Colossians, being alive in sin, ye have died (ἀπεθάνετε) in Christ. In Ephesians, being νεκροί, we have been quickened with Him: it is a new creation. It does not seem to me there can be the smallest doubt of what is the right translation.

As to 1 Corinthians 15:3, again, I know of no objection, if used in a general way of saying, Christ died for any man's sins. In the passage, however, Paul is addressing believers as such, but still speaks vaguely, so that "he that hath ears to hear" may apply it. "He is a propitiation for the whole world." But this is never said of bearing sins. That is carefully avoided in scripture. It will not be found other than dying for our sins. But 'bearing sins' in all parts of scripture is thus specifically confined. So we read, "We pray in Christ's stead, be ye reconciled . . . for he hath made him to be sin for us." Scripture is accurate here - a propitiation set out before all, and sure remission of all, if we come; but bearing sins never extended to those who are lost, or His doing it might be in vain for believers. "Our," to saints or sinners, is the scriptural way of putting it.

[53272E]

This document may be found online at the following URL: http://www.stempublishing.com/authors/darby/letters/53272E.html.

You are welcome to freely access and use this material for personal study or sending to other Bible students, compiling extracts for notes etc, but please do not republish without permission.

With the prayerful desire that the Lord Jesus Christ will use this God-given ministry in this form for His glory and the blessing of many in these last days before His coming. © Les Hodgett .